General Instructions:
(i) This is an objective type question paper.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) The question paper consists of 50 questions each of which carries one mark.
(iv) Each question has four alternatives, one of which is correct.
Q. 1. In which of the following reports/books was ‘Sustainable Development’ formally defined for the first time?
(a) Silent Spring
(b) The Limits to Growth
(c) Our Common Future
(d) Agenda 21
Ans. (d) Agenda 21.
Q. 2. Which one of the following is not one of the seventeen Sustainable Development goals adopted by UN?
(a) No Poverty
(b) Zero Hunger
(c) Good Health and Well-being
(d) Tourism and Travel
Ans. (d) Tourism and Travel.
Q. 3. Which one of the following is an example of human modified environment?
(a) Artificial lakes
(b) Orchards
(c) Crops fields
(d) Dams
Ans. (d) Dams.
Q. 4. In which of the following do forests not play a significant role?
(a) Soil formation
(b) Water conservation
(c) Regeneration of carbon dioxide
(d) Moderation of climate
Ans. (c) Regeneration of carbon dioxide.
Q. 5. Which one of the following regions covers more than 50% plant species in the world?
(a) Tropical Rain Forests
(b) Tropical Deciduous Forests
(c) Temperate Evergreen Forests
(d) Temperate Deciduous Forests
Ans. (a) Tropical Rain Forests.
Q. 6. Crown fire mostly takes place in which of the following forests?
(a) Dense Forest
(b) Thorn Forest
(c) Savanna Forest
(d) Alpine Forest
Ans. (a) Dense Forest.
Q. 7. Communities residing near waste disposal sites receiving less economic benefits than the communities generating the waste represents?
(a) Economic Inequity
(b) Social Inequity
(c) Procedural Inequity
(d) Geographical Inequity
Ans. (c) Procedural Inequity.
Q. 8. Which one of the following communities does not have a strong sense of stewardship?
(a) Urban community
(b) Tribal community
(c) Traditional agricultural societies
(d) Postoral community
Ans. (a) Urban community.
Q. 9. Which of the following views considers nature as a mother and that she cannot be tamed?
(a) European view
(b) Indian view
(c) Sineatic view
(d) North American view
Ans. (b) Indian view.
Q. 10. The water cycle is driven by:
(a) Global carbon cycle
(b) Sun
(c) Atmosphere
(d) Hydrogen
Ans. (b) Sun.
Q. 11. Chemosynthetic bacteria are:
(a) Phagotrophs
b) Saprotrophs
(c) Autotrophs
(d) Heterotrophs
Ans. (c) Autotrophs.
Q. 12. Life does not exist beyond. …………..metres above mean sea level.
(a) 6000
(b) 7000
(c) 8000
(d) 9000
Ans. (b) 7000.
Q. 13. In an ecosystem, the decomposition of organisms takes place by?
(a) Phagotrophs
(b) Reducers
(c) Primary
(d) Secondary Consumers
Ans. (b) Reducers.
Q. 14. The increase in population between 10,000 BC and about 1800 AD coincided with the:
(a) Growth in agriculture
(b) Industrial revolution
(c) Large scale immigration
(d) Decrease in death rate
Ans. (a) Growth in agriculture.
Q. 15. During the 14th century more than half the population of Europe and Asia was killed due to:
(a) Bubonic Plague
(b) Malaria
(c) The great fire
(d) The great earthquake
Ans. (a) Bubonic Plague.
Q. 16. Which one of the following is not a genetic disease?
(a) Haemophilia
(b) Sickle cell anemia
(c) Malaria
(d) Thalessemia
Ans. (c) Malaria.
Q. 17. Match the types of environmental influences with their respective category.
| Environmental Influence | Category |
| (a) Poison | (i) Physical |
| (b) Noise | (ii) Sociological |
| (c) Overcrowding | (iii) Biological |
| (d) Allergens | (iv) Chemical |
(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i
(2) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
(3) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
(4) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i
Ans. (2) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii.
Q. 18. In a coniferous forest, the soil is:
(a) Rich in mineral nutrients
(b) Acidic and mineral deficient
(c) Basic and mineral deficient
(d) Moderately basic and rich in mineral nutrients
Ans. (b) Acidic and mineral deficient.
Q. 19. The organisms which are attached to stems and leaves of rooted plants are known as:
(a) Neuston
(b) Plankton
(c) Periphyton
(d) Nekton
Ans. (c) Periphyton.
Q. 20. In an ocean, the zone showing the maximum variability in terms of temperature, light, salinity and moisture is:
(a) Littoral zone
(b) Pelagic zone
(c) Benthic zone
(d) Neritic zone
Ans. (b) Pelagic zone.
Q. 21. An estuary is a transitional zone representing:
(a) A vast area of saline water
(b) A large number of organisms
(c) Great productivity built on a large base
(d) Unique ecological features and biotic communities
Ans. (d) Unique ecological features and biotic communities.
Q. 22. Which of the following is a major cause of deforestation?
(a) Forest fires
(b) Construction of dams
(c) Shifting cultivation
(d) Mining
Ans. (c) Shifting cultivation.
Q. 23. Passenger pigeon is the perfect example of loss of species due to:
(a) Habitat destruction
(b) Poisoning by pesticides
(c) Impact of climate change
(d) Selective destruction for food
Ans. (a) Habitat destruction.
Q. 24. The weed which causes enormous damage in fish and rice crop is:
(a) Water hyacinth
(b) Congress weed
(c) Golden apple snail
(d) Mesquite
Ans. (a) Water hyacinth.
Q. 25. Artificial insemination has been useful for conservation of:
(a) Snakes
(b) Lizards
(c) Elephants
(d) Ducks
Ans. (d) Ducks.
Q. 26. Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hotspot?
(a) Large number of species
(b) Abundance of endemic species
(c) Species under constant threat
(d) Large number of exotic species
Ans. (c) Species under constant threat.
Q. 27. Which one of the following areas in India is a hotspot of biodiversity?
(a) Sundarbans
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Gangetic Plains
Ans. (b) Western Ghats.
Q. 28. Which one of the following has the maximum genetic diversity in India?
(a) Tea
(b) Teak
(c) Mango
(d) Wheat
Ans. (c) Mango.
Q. 29. Which of the following has maximum percentage of availability of water?
(a) Rivers
(b) Lakes
(c) Atmospheric water
(d) Ground water
Ans. (d) Ground water.
Q. 30. Among the ecosystems mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity?
(a) Mangroves
(b) Deserts
(c) Coral reefs
(d) Alpine meadows
Ans. (c) Coral reefs.
Q. 31. How much water on the Earth is readily accessible for human use?
(a) 0.5%
(b) 1%
(c) 3%
(d) 0.5%.
Ans. (c) Coral reefs.
Q. 32. The soil which is low in organic matter and has low fertility in India is:
(a) Red soil
(b) Soil with loamy texture and dry composition
(c) Soil of desert region
(d) Soil of Himalayan region
Ans. (c) Soil of desert region.
Q. 33. Which of the following is not a practice used to prevent soil erosion?
(a) Bunding
(b) Kul
(c) Mulching
(d) Soil moisture conservation
Ans. (a) Bunding.
Q. 34. Identify the conventional source of energy from the following:
(a) Biomass
(b) Geothermal
(c) Wind
(d) Atomic energy
Ans. (d) Atomic energy.
Q. 35. A biomass gassifier converts:
(a) Solid fuel to gaseous fuel
(b) Gaseous fuel to solid fuel
(c) Liquid fuel to gaseous fuel
(d) Gaseous fuel to liquid fuel
Ans. (a) Solid fuel to gaseous fuel.
Q. 36. The most suitable fuel for a fuel cell is:
(a) Water
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Carbon dioxide
Ans. (c) Hydrogen
Q. 37. The biophysical carrying capacity is………population that can be supported by the resources of the planet at a given level of technology.
(a) The minimum
(b) The maximum
(c) All of the above
(d) Half of the above
Ans. (b) The maximum.
Q. 38. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Ozone
(d) Chlorine
Ans. (c) Ozone.
Q. 39. Which of the following is not related to climate change?
(a) UNFCC
(b) IPCC
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Montreal Protocol
Ans. (d) Montreal Protocol.
Q. 40. The ozone layer is present in which of the following ranges of the atmosphere?
(a) 0–10 km
(b) 15–50 km
(c) 60–70 km
(d) 65–90 km
Ans. (c) 15–50 km.
Q. 41. The pH of rainfall was meausred to be as per the following at four places A, B, C and D. Which place had the acid deposition?
(a) A – 5.5
(b) B – 6.2
(c) C – 6.5
(d) D – 6.9
Ans. (a) A – 5.5.
Q. 42. Which of the following chemicals is responsible for ozone depletion?
(a) Sulphur oxides
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Nitrogen oxide
Ans. (c) Chlorofluorocharbons.
Q. 43. Which of the following animals excretes very concentrated urine?
(a) Camel
(b) Garden lizard
(c) Nocturnal Rodents
(d) Snakes
Ans. (c) Nocturnal Rodents.
Q. 44. Which of the following is an example of non-point source of pollution?
(a) Run-offs from agricultural fields
(b) Emissions from a power plant
(c) Discharge of effluent waste water from a factory
(d) Municipal waste water discharged in a river
Ans. (a) Run-offs from agricultural fields.
Q. 45. When was The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act enacted?
(a) 1974
(b) 1986
(c) 1981
(d) 1987
Ans. (c) 1981.
Q. 46. The main objective of UNFCC relates to:
(a) Green house gases
(b) Ozone depleting substances
(c) Biological diversity
(d) Chemical and Hazardous wastes
Ans. (a) Green house gases.
Q. 47. Which is not a waste minimisation method?
(a) Process modification
(b) Waste concentration
(c) Waste segregation
(d) Landfill
Ans. (d) Landfill.
Q. 48. Which is the best method for disposal of hospital and toxic wastes?
(a) Incineration
(b) Dumping at sea
(c) Landfill
(d) Recycling
Ans. (c) Landfill.
Q. 49. Which method is commonly used to assess the presence of organisms in a water body?
(a) MPN
(b) DO
(c) TDS
(d) COD
Ans. (a) MPN.
Q. 50. NBA has been set up under the:
(a) The Wildlife (Protection), Act
(b) The Forest (Conservation), Act
(c) The Biological Diversity, Act
(d) The Environment (Protection), Act
Ans. (c) The Biological Diversity Act.
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